Tasha wrote:
The problem I've always had with this literary example is the mention of stitching up sleeves in "zigzag lacing". I have to wonder if there's a subtlety of meaning in the original French (and in the actual contemporary culture) which simply meant that a lace (not thread) was strung through a bodkin which was then used to guide the lace through lacing holes, already in place. I know this is conjecture, but Guillaume de Lorris (the author of the first part of the Roman de la Rose) makes the whole "sewing" assertion rather ambiguous when he brings in "zigzag lacing".
I am very glad that I am not the only one who considers this a possibility. Perhaps I am splitting hairs here, but to me, there is a fairly big difference between using a needle as an aiglet to facilitate lacing existing holes and actually stitching your sleeves shut every time you want to wear that particular gown. I, too, am not sure which was being done in this instance.
In either case, as Kass and Tasha have pointed out, sewing the forearm of the sleeves closed (if that is what is happening), is drastically different from sewing every seam shut while the clothing is on your body.
You make a good point, Kass, about the period art not always showing how things were fastened. If scholars or lay-people are jumping to the conclusion that if there are no visible fasteners in the art, they must have sewn the clothing on to themselves, they need to remember the principle of Occam's Razor: that a problem should be stated in its basic and simplest terms. Which is simpler: people spent unknown hours being hand-sewn into their clothes, or the artist didn't bother to paint the fasteners?
I agree that people used bathing methods besides just immersion. In Marc's excerpt (thank-you, Marc!) we have hand-washing. I have seen several illuminations showing servants offering ewers of water, basins and towels to guests before a feast. In one of the Gies' books (packed away! Alas!) they cite records that Bogo de Claire, a cleric, spent more on perfumed oil and scented waters than on alms and paid his laundress to wash his hair.
I believe that there is ample evidence that immersion was used, as well: church records condemning bathhouses, the existence of medicinal hot springs like Bath, etc.
Part of my consternation at statements like the one I mentioned is that they are indefensible, and crumble before any serious research. So how is it that they persist and perpetuate? I can't help but think that there must be some weighty, Victorian tome written by a self-important Oxford alumnus who asserted that Medieval people were basically swine with opposable thumbs. People must be getting this stuff from some source and passing it along the gossip chain until no one can remember just where it started, but everyone agrees that it must be true: everyone says so. I just wish that I knew where it started.
Anyway, thanks so much for all of the good input on this.
-Woolery